Latest Radiology Preparation Guide For Freshers
Q – 1 Which of the following is NOT a muscle of facial expression?
a. levator labii superioris
b. depressor anguli oris
c. buccinator
d. mentalis
e. medial pterygoid
Ans- e. medial pterygoid
Q – 2 Energy production for the cell is accomplished through oxidation of nutrients in the
a. cell membrane
b. lysosomes
c. mitochondria
d. endoplasmic reticulum
Ans- c. mitochondria
Q – 3 The hypoglossal nerve supplies the
a. sublingual gland
b. muscles of the tongue
c. mucous membrane of the floor of the oral cavity
d. mucous membrane of the anterior two-thirds of the tongue
Ans- b. muscles of the tongue
Q – 4 the nasopalatine nerve is a branch of which division of the trigeminal nerve?
a. ophthalmic division
b. maxillary division
c. mandibular division
d. occipital division
Ans- b. maxillary division
Q – 5 which bone contains the superior orbital fissure?
a. maxilla
b. temporal
c. occipital
d. sphenoid
Ans- d. sphenoid
Q – 6 Which papilla have no taste buds?
a. foliate
b. circumvallate
c. fungiform
d. filiform
Ans- d. filiform
Q – 7 the temporalis muscle inserts into the
a. zygomatic arch
b. medial side of the angle of the mandible
c. mandibular molars
d. sphenoid bone
e. coronoid process of the mandible
Ans- e. coronoid process of the mandible
Q – 8 Name 4 bones of the skull:
Ans- Frontal,
occipital,
parietal,
sphenoid,
temporal,
ethmoid
Q – 9 which nerve innervates the mandibular posterior teeth?
a. mental
b. buccal
c. incisive
d. inferior alveolar
Ans- d. inferior alveolar
Q – 10 Histologically, gingival epithelium most closely resembles epithelium of the:
a. hard palate
b. soft palate
c. vestibular mucosa
d. transitional zone of the lips
Ans- a. hard palate
Q – 11 Which of the following premolars often has three cusps?
a. maxillary first
b. maxillary second
c. mandibular first
d. mandibular second
Ans- d. mandibular second
Q – 12 Pain impulses from the periodontal ligament are carried by which of the following cranial nerves?
a. I
b. III
c. V
d. VII
Ans- C. V
Q – 13 the nasopalatine nerve enters the oral cavity by way of the
a. mental foramen
b. incisive foramen
c. pterygopalatine foramen
d. lesser palatine
Ans- b. incisive foramen
Q – 14 the suture between the premaxilla and the palatine process of the maxilla lies between
a. central incisors
b. central and lateral incisors
c. laterla incisor and canine
d. canine and first premolar
Ans- c. lateral incisors and canine
Q – 15 which gland secretes serous saliva ONLY?
a. parotid
b. sublingual
c. submandibular
Ans- a. parotid
Q – 16 the mitral valve seperates the
a. left atrium from the aorta
b. left atrium from the ventricle
c. left atrium from the pulmonary vein
d. right atrium from the right ventricle
Ans- b. left atrium from the ventricle
Q – 17 The most common artery used for determing pulse rate in the conscious adult is
a. radial
b. brachial
c. femoral
d. external carotid
e. superficial temporal
Ans- a. radial
Q – 18 Where does Stensens duct open?
a. opposite the maxillary second molars
b. opposite the mandibular second molars
c. under the tongue
d. at the lingual foramen
Ans- a. opposite the maxillary second molars
Q – 19 what is the lymph drainage for the tip of the tongue?
a. submandibular to facial to deep cervical
b. submental to parotid to deep cervical
c. submental to submandibular to deep cervical
d. submandibular to parotid to deep cervical
Ans- c. submental to submandibular to deep cervical
Q – 20 which tooth has the longest root?
a. mandibular canine
b. maxillary first premolar
c. maxillary canine
d. maxillary central
Ans- c. maxillary canine
Q – 21 When the mouth is opened widely, the articular disk moves
a. medially
b. laterally
c. anteriorly
d. none of the above, it does not move
Ans- c. anteriorly
Q – 22 Which premolar usually has two roots?
a. maxillary first
b. maxillary second
c. mandibular first
d. mandibular second
Ans- a. maxillary first
Q – 23 What does ALARA stand for?
Ans- As Low As Reasonably Achievable
Q – 24 Which of the following statements is true of general radation?
a. it is also known as braking (bremsstrahlung) radiation
b. it is also known as characteristic radiation
c. it is the source of the majority of x-rays that are produced
d. both a and c
Ans- d. both a and c
Q – 25 Radiation is the emission and propatation of energy through space or a substance in the form of waves or particles. Radioactivity can be defined as the process by which certain unstable atoms or elements undergo spontaneous disintegration, or decay, in an effort to attain a more balanced nuclear state
Ans- True / True
Q – 26 A variation in the true size and shape of the object being radiographed is termed
a. magnification
b. distortion
c. sharpness
d. resolution
Ans- b. distortion
Q – 27 the difference in degrees of blackness between adjacent areas on a dental radiograph is termed
a. density
b. contrast
c. subject thickness
d. diagnostic quality
Ans- b. contrast
Q – 28 which of the following is the location in which thermonic emission occurs?
a. positive cathode
b. postive anode
c. negative cathode
d. negative anode
Ans- c. negative cathode
Q – 29 Greater beam limitation is achived when the PID is ________ and the diameter of the opening is
a. shorter; smaller
b. longer; bigger
c. shorter; bigger
d. longer; smaller
Ans- d. longer; smaller
Q – 30 Ionization occurs:
a. when atoms lose electrons; they become deficient in negative charges and therefore behave as positively charged atoms.
b. when atoms gain electrons; they become positively charged
c. when an atom loses its nucleus
d. only whn K-orbit electron is ejected and replaced by an L-orbit
Ans- a. when atoms lose electrons; they become deficient in negative charges and therefore behave as postively charged atoms
Q – 31 Identify which of the following is true concerning labial mounting:
a. the patients left is on your left
b. the patients left is on your right
c. the teeth are mounted in reverse anatomic order
d. the radiographs are viewed as if the operator were inside the patients mouth looking out
Ans- b. the patient’s left is on your right
Q – 32 The overall blackness of a film is termed
a. contrast
b. density
c. overexposure
d. polychromatic
Ans- b. density
Q – 33 If kilovoltage is decreased with no other variations in exposure factors, the resultant film will
a. appear lighter
b. appear darker
c. remain the same
d. either a or b
Ans- a. appear lighter
Q – 34 which of the following represents how soon radiation dissipates in a treatment room following a 5 impulse exposure?
a. immediately
b. within 5 seconds
c. within 30 seconds
d. within 2 minutes
e. never totally
Ans- a. immediately
Q – 35 The following must be disclosed to the patient prior to obtaining informed consent:
a. the purpose of the procedure and who will perform it
b. the potential benefits of receiving the procedure
c. the possible risks involved in having the procedure performed, including the risk of not having the procedure performed
d. all the above
Ans- d. all the above
Q – 36 any leaks of white light into the darkroom will cause:
a. film fog
b. film reticulation
c. overdeveloped films
d. underexposed films
Ans- c. overdeveloped films
Q – 37 Which of the following is the recommended size of the beam at the patients face?
a. 2.75 inches
b. 3.25 inches
c. 3.50 inches
d. 4.00 inches
Ans- a. 2.75 inches
Q – 38 A fixing agent found in the fixer is:
a. potassium alum
b. acetic acid
c. sodium thiosulfate
Ans- c. sodium thiosulfate
Q – 39 The GBX-2 safelight filter by Kodak is recommended for:
a. intraoral films only
b. extraoral screen films only
c. extraoral nonscreen films only
d. intraoral and extraoral films
Ans- d. intraoral and extraoral films
Q – 40 The purpose of the lead foil sheet in the film packet is:
a. to protect the film from primary radiation
b. to protect the film from saliva
c. to protect the film from back-scattered radiation
d. to distinguish between the patients right and left side
Ans- c. to protect the film from the back-scattered radiation
Q – 41 Identify the film that is used to detect both interproximal caries and crestal bone levels:
a. occlusal
b. bite-wing
c. panoramic
d. periapical
Ans- b. bite-wing
Q – 42 The optimal temperature for the developer solution in a manual film processing set up is:
a. 70 degrees F
b. 68 degrees F
c. 80 degrees F
d. 90 degrees F
e. 55 degrees F
Ans- b. 68 degrees F
Q – 43 the first step in film processing is:
a. development
b. rinsing
c. fixation
d. washing
e. drying
Ans- a. development
Q – 44 the size of the x-ray focal spot influences radiographic:
a. density
b. contrast
c. definition
d. distortion
Ans- d. distortion
Q – 45 The inverese square law is a mathematical theory about
a. the production of x-rays and filtration
b. the collimation of x-rays
c. the length and quality of x-rays
d. the distance from the x-ray tube to the object being exposed
Ans- d. the distance from the x-ray tube to the object being exposed
Q – 46 The latent effect in radiology is:
a. a short-term effect
b. is a direct effect
c. is the time between exposure to radiation and the finding of clinical signs
d. is the accumulative effect
Ans- c. is the time between exposure to radiation and the findings of clinical signs
Q – 47 Identify the recommended distance between the safelight and work surface:
a. minimum of 1 foot
b. minimum of 2 feet
c. minimum of 7 feet
d. minimum of 4 feet
Ans- d. minimum of 4 feet
Q – 48 Identify the reduction in exposure time when changing from D-speed film to E-speed film:
a. reduce by 1/8
b. reduce by 1/4
c. reduce by 1/3
d. reduce by 1/2
Ans- d. reduce by 1/2
Q – 49 During pregnancy a patient:
a. should be advised of her legal rights before being irradiated
b. should be warned about possible miscarriage.
c. should never be irradiated for dental radiographs
d. may be irradiated for dental radiographs by taking the necessary precautions
Ans- d. may be irradiated for dental radiographs by taking the necessary precautions
Q – 50 A diagnostic film is produced using 10mA and .45 second. What exposure time is needed to produce the same film at 15 mA?
a. 0.25 second
b. 0.30 second
c. 0.45 second
d. 0.50 second
Ans- b. 0.30 second
Q – 51 Identify the purpose of the radiation film badge
a. to reduce the radiation exposure to the patient
b. to protect the radiographer from radiation exposure
c. to protect the radiology cubicle from overheating
d. to monitor the radiation exposure to the radiographer
Ans- d. to monitor the radiation exposure to the radiographer
Q – 52 Identify an early clinical sign of excessive acute exposure to radiation:
a. jaundice
c. erythema
d. bleeding
e. loss of hair
d. all the above
Ans- c. erythema
Q – 53 cutting off the root apex portion of the image on a periapical radiograph results from
a. excessive horizontal angulation
b. inadequate horizontal angulation
c. excessive vertical angulation
d. inadequate vertical angulation
Ans- d. inadequate vertical angulation
Q – 54 When a patients head is in the correct position, a _______ vertical angulation is used when exposing maxillary periapicals and a _______ vertical angulation is used when exposing mandibular periapicals
a. positive, positive
b. negative, negative
c. positive, negative
d. negative, positive
Ans- c. positive, negative
Q – 55 In which of the following conditions would vertical bitewing radiographs be recommended over horizontal bitewing radiograph?
a. child with rampant caries
b. adolescent with suspected third molar impactions
c. adult with mal-aligned teeth
d. adult wih periodontal diseases (bone loss)
Ans- d. adult with periodontal diseases (bone loss)
Q – 56 A quality radiograph is obtained using a 4 inch PID and an exposure time of 3 impulses. The PID was removed and replaced with a 16 inch PID. What should the new exposure time be to maintain image density?
Ans- 48 impulses
Q – 57 X-radiation was discovered by _________
Ans- Ruentgen
Q – 58 which of the following PID lengths BEST decreases radiation exposure to the patient and improves image resolution?
a. 8 inches
b. 4 inches
c. 12 inches
d. 16 inches
Ans- d. 16 inches
Q – 59 the kVp control regulates all of the following EXCEPT which one?
a. accelerating potential
b. attraction between anode and cathode
c. penetrating power of the x-ray beam
d. heating of the filament
Ans- d. heating of the filament
Q – 60 The cathode is the electrically negative portion of the vacuum tube, and it is composed of a focusing cup and filament.
Ans- True
Q – 61 voltage is the measurement of the number of electrons flowing in an electrical circuit. Decreasing the voltage decreases the force that moves the electrons along an electrical conductor.
Ans- False
Q – 62 A setting of 85 kVp is equal to how many volts?
a. 850
b. 8500
c. 85,000
d. 850,000
e. 8,500,000
Ans- c. 85,000
Q – 63 Which of the following would increase the number of electrons flowing through the dental x-ray electrical circuit
a. an increase in the milliamperage
b. an increase the kilovoltage
c. an increase in the PID length
Ans- a. an increase in the milliamperage
Q – 64 the largest source of ionizing radiation exposure to a population is
a. consumer products
b. medical and dental examinations
c. atmospheric weapons tests
d. nuclear energy production
e. naturally occurring radionuclides
Ans- e. naturally occuring radionuclides
Q – 65 Dental x-rays are
a. electromagnetic radiations
b. particulate radiations
c. subatonic radiations
d. ultrasonic radiations
e. microwave radiations
Ans- a. electromagnetic radiations
Q – 66 which of the following structure is radiolucent
a. genial tubercles
b. external oblique ridge
c. hamular process
d. nasal septum
e. submandibular fossa
Ans- e. submandibular fossa
Q – 67 when changing from a beam indicating device (BID) of 6″ with an exposure time of 0.5 seconds to a BID of 12″, the new exposure time would be how many seconds
a. 1
b. 1.5
c. 2
d. 2.5
e. 4.0
Ans- c. 2
Q – 68 image magnification may be mineralized by
a. using a long cone
b. using a short cone
c. placing the film as far away from the tooth as possible
d. shortening the exposure time
Ans- a. using a long cone
Q – 69 when using the bisecting angle technique, directing the x-ray beam perpendicular to the long axis of the teeth causes
a. an overlapping of tooth images
b. a reduction of tooth images
c. a foreshortening of tooth images
d. an elongation of tooth images
e. a decrease in the penumbra formation
Ans- d. an elongation of tooth images
Q – 70 if the operator wants to change from the long-scale (low contrast) film technique to a short-scale (high contrast) film technique and maintain the same density of the film, what should be done?
a. decrease kVp and the mA
b. decrease the kVp and increase the mA
c. increase the kVp and the mA
d. increase the kVp and decrease the mA
e. increase the kVp and use the same mA
Ans- b. decrease the kVp and increase the mA
Q – 71 The paralleling technique using the extension cone, compared with the bisecting angle technique, involves
a. greater vertical angulation
b. greater object-to-film distance
c. shorter developing time
d. shorter anode-to-film distance
e. all the above
Ans- b. greater object-to-film distance
Q – 72 If the distance from the source to the object is tripled, the intensity of the x-ray beam at the new distance would be:
a. one ninth the original distance
b. one sixth the original distance
c. one third the original distance
d. one half the original distance
Ans- a. one ninth the original distance
Q – 73 identify which of the following is true concerning radiation injury:
a. all radiation injuries are evident immediately
b. x-ray radiation only injures somatic cells
c. acute injury due to dental x-radiation exposure is common
d. cumulative effects of x-radiation exposure lead to health problems
Ans- d. cumulative effects of x-radiation exposure lead to health problems
Q – 74 The dental x-ray beam consists of photon of many different wavelengths, with the shortest wavelength (quality) photons determined by:
a. milliamperage (mA)
b. kilovoltage (kVp)
c. the timer
d. Coefficiency of attenuation
Ans- b. kilovoltage (kVp)
Q – 75 Identify the x-rays that are most likely absorbed by the skin, thus causing x-ray injury:
a. deep, penetrating x-rays
b. aluminum-filtered x-rays
c. long-wavelength x-rays
d. short-wavelenght x-rays
Ans- c. long-wavelength x-rays
Q – 76 Identify the angulation of the central ray when using the bisecting angle technique:
a. 90 degrees to the imaginary bisector
b. 90 degrees to the film
c. 90 degrees to the long axis of the tooth
d. 90 degrees to the contact area
Ans- a. 90 degrees to the imaginary bisector
Q – 77 which component of the tubehead aims and shapes the x-ray?
a. metal housing
b. tubehead seal
c. aluminum disks
d. position-indicating device
Ans- d. position-indicating device
Q – 78 The standard film size used for adult bitwings and posterior periapicals is number:
a. 1
b. 2
c. 4
d. 0
Ans- b. 2
Q – 79 Identify the cells that are most sensitive to x-radiation:
a. nerve cells
b. muscle cells
c. small lymphocytes
d. cardiac cells
Ans- c. small lyphocytes
Q – 80 Image magnification results from decreased:
a. target size
b. target-film distance
c. object-film distance
Ans- b. target-film distance
Q – 81 Identify the maximum permissible dose (MPD) of an occupationally exposed person:
a. 0.01 Sv/year
b. 0.02 Sv/year
c. 0.03 Sv/year
d. 0.05 Sv/year
Ans- d. 0.05 Sv/year
Q – 82 When viewed on a light source, a dental radiograph that demonstrates many shades of gray is said to have:
a. high contrast
b. low contrast
c. high density
d. low density
Ans- b. low contrast
Q – 83 Which of the following is MOST radioapaque?
a. amalgam
b. porcelain
c. composite
d. acrylic
Ans- a. amalgam
Q – 84 A diagnostic film is produced using 10 mA and .5 second. What exposure time is needed to produce the same film at 20 mA?
Ans- .25 seconds
Q – 85 What is the unit of time used to measure x-rays exposure?
Ans- Impulses
Q – 86 What are future challenges for the specialty of radiology?
Ans- “Turf wars.” As radiology explodes into a massive field with many new types of imaging studies and applications, specialists from other fields seek to read and interpret the studies that pertain to their field. This is already happening in interventional radiology, where specialists from other fields seek to do minimally invasive procedures, for instance vascular surgery.
Other examples include cardiology and their interest to do cardiac CT and MRI. It will be a challenge to prevent the fragmentation of radiology and the assimilation of its parts into other specialties; however, the sheer volume of imaging studies in radiology has increased drastically in recent years and it is doubtful that other specialists will be able to take on a CT work list while also meeting their clinical demands. As a specialty, we need to provide excellent service and interpretation – that’s our challenge.
“Outsourcing.” Given the portable nature of radiology and high bandwidth network connections, it is possible to have a radiologist on the other side of the world report the same studies we are doing here. There is concern that work for radiologists here will be exported to markets where labour is cheaper. This is happening in the US far more than in Canada.
Also, one must consider that radiology training worldwide is not necessarily equivalent. A radiologist in another country may not necessarily be able to provide the same quality of interpretation/consultation that radiologists here may be able to. Secondly, liability becomes an issue. If a radiologist in another country is consistently making misses, who takes responsibility? How is litigation pursued? These are some reasons why outsourcing outside of Canada has not been a major factor here so far.
It is more likely that teleradiology partnerships will develop where one group may cover on-call overnight or in smaller groups or practice settings covering vacation or conference leaves. This can also assist with remote centres having difficulty recruiting radiologists or delivering some specialty expertise.
Radiology Training: With the expansion of the specialty comes a massive expansion in the knowledge requirements for graduates from radiology residency. As the specialty continues to grow, the training will evolve to help residents cope with the large amount of knowledge and training required.
Future options may be to subdivide radiology residency early on into subspecialties as they do in internal medicine. In Canada, this isn’t happening yet, but could evolve to this in the future.
Q – 87 What is the call frequency?
Ans- During residency: This varies from program to program depending on the number of sites covered and number of residents. At McMaster, we do call roughly 1 in 7 or 8 (averages out to 3-4 calls per month). We cover two sites on each call shift. Our hospitals have established a contrast policy whereby residents do not need to travel between sites, in order to cover contrast-enhanced examinations.
As a staff radiologist: Your call frequency will depend on the number of radiologists in your practice, as well as the imaging modalities and technologist/imaging hours your hospital offers. As a rough estimate, it there are 4 radiologists in your group, you will be on-call 1 in 4; if there are 13 of you, then it’s 1 in 13, etc. This may change if you have specialized skills, such as in interventional radiology.
The other determinant of call depends on whether you are working at an academic centre (with resident and fellow call-coverage) or a community setting. For the latter, another factor which influences the busyness of your call is whether or not your centre provides 24/7 CT, US or MRI imaging.
Q – 88 What conditions will you commonly see as a diagnostic radiologist?
Ans- There are far too many to list. Any disease or patient presentation that can possibly have a physical/imaging manifestation from the cranial vertex down to the tips of the toes is a possibility in the radiology department. There’s a lot to know, but that’s what makes it challenging and satisfying!
There will not be a day that goes by that you don’t see at least one great or interesting case, no matter what your work setting!
Q – 89 What are some hot new areas in radiology?
Ans- Combined imaging techniques, such as PET-CT offer exciting future opportunities for disease detection and monitoring
Functional MR imaging
Molecular imaging
Cardiac MR and CT
Breast MRI
Expanding interventional techniques
Q – 90 Explain Radiology?
Ans- Radiology is a medical specialty that employs the use of imaging to both diagnose and treat disease visualised within the human body. Radiologists use an array of imaging technologies (such as X-ray radiography, ultrasound, computed tomography (CT), nuclear medicine, positron emission tomography (PET) and magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) to diagnose or treat diseases. Interventional radiology is the performance of (usually minimally invasive) medical procedures with the guidance of imaging technologies.