100 Essential Biotechnology Interview Questions Part – 2
Q – 106 What is the disease caused by Encephalitozzon hellem?
Ans- Conjunctivitis, disseminated disease
Q – 107 What is the disease caused by Guanarito virus?
Ans- Venezuelan haemorrhagic fever
Q – 108 What is the disease caused by Helicobacter pylori?
Ans- Peptic ulcers
Q – 109 What is the disease caused by Hantavirus?
Ans- Haemorrhagic fever with renal syndrome
Q – 110 What is the disease caused by Cryptosporidium parvum?
Ans- Acute chronic diarrhea
Q – 111 What is the disease caused by Borrelia burgdorferi?
Ans- Lyme disease
Q – 112 What is the disease caused by Hepatitis E?
Ans- Enteric Non-A, Non-B hepatitis
Q – 113 What is the disease caused by Nipah virus and West Nile virus?
Ans- Encephalitis
Q – 114 What is the disease caused by Influenza A subtype H5N1?
Ans- Avian influenza
Q – 115 What is the disease caused by HIV?
Ans- The disease caused by HIV is AIDS
Q – 116 What is the disease caused by toxin producing strains of Staphylococcus aureus?
Ans- Toxic shock syndrome
Q – 117 What is the disease caused by Hepatitis C?
Ans- Non-A, Non-B hepatitis are commonly transmitted via transfusion.
Q – 118 What is the disease caused by Ebola virus?
Ans- Ebola haemorrhagic fever
Q – 119 What is the disease caused by Sabia virus?
Ans- Brazilian haemorrhagic
Q – 120 What is the disease caused by Rotavirus?
Ans- The disease caused by rotavirus is infantile diarrhea.
Q – 121 What are the steps in bacterial infection?
Ans- There are four steps in bacterial infection.
They are:
Attachment to host
Proliferation
Invasion of host tissue
Toxin-induced damage to host cell
Q – 122 How many types of hypersensitive reactions are there?
Ans- There are four types of hypersensitive reactions,
they are:
Type I hypersensitive reaction
Type II hypersensitive reaction
Type III hypersensitive reaction
Type IV hypersensitive reaction
Q – 123 Name some autoimmune diseases?
Ans- Rheumatoid arthritis, systemic lupus erythematosus, good pasture’s syndrome
Q – 124 Name some Infectious diseases?
Ans- Some of the Infectious diseases are Malaria, meningitis, trypanosomiasis, hepatitis etc…
Q – 125 Give some symptoms of serum sickness?
Ans- Symptoms include fever, weakness, rashes, with erythema and edema. Serum sickness depends on the immune complexes formed and the size of the complexes.
Q – 126 What is serum sickness?
Ans- When an individual is exposed to foreign serum antigen then a combination of symptoms are produced which is called as serum sickness.
Q – 127 What is type IV hypersensitivity?
Ans- It is cell-mediated hypersensitivity. Typical manifestations include graft rejection, dermatitis etc.
Q – 128 What is type III hypersensitivity?
Ans- It is immune complex mediated hypersensitivity. Typical manifestations include rheumatoid arthritis, serum sickness, necrotizing etc.
Q – 129 What is type II hypersensitivity?
Ans- It is IgG mediated cytotoxic hypersensitivity. Typical manifestations include erythroblastosis fetalis, hemolytic anemia, blood transfusion reactions etc.
Q – 130 What is type I hypersensitivity?
Ans- It is IgE mediated hypersensitivity. Typical manifestations include asthma, food allergies, eczema, hay fever etc.
Q – 131 What is a rhogam?
Ans- Is an antibody that binds to any of the blood cells, enter the mother’s blood circulation, and facilitate their clearance by activation of B-cells and memory cell production.
Q – 132 What is erythroblastosis fetalis?
Ans- It is a hemolytic disease, which develops in newborn. Maternal IgG antibodies cross the placenta and destroy the red bleed cells. This develops when an Rh+ expresses an Rh antigen on blood cells that the mother does not express.
Q – 133 What is atopic dermatitis?
Ans- Atopic dermatitis is an inflammatory skin disease. This disease is observed frequently in young children. There will be skin eruptions.
Q – 134 Explain in brief about cytokines?
Ans- Cytokines activate inflammatory cells such as neutrophils and eosnophils.IL-5 is important in activation of eosnophils, IL-4 increases IgE production by B-cells. IL-4, Il-5, IL-6, TNF-a has been secreted by human mast cells.
Q – 135 Explain in brief about leukotrienes and prostaglandins?
Ans- Leukotrienes and prostaglandins are formed only when the mast cell undergo degranulation and enzymatic break down of phospholipids in the plasma membrane.
The effects produced by them are more pronounced and long lasting than histamine. Leukotrienes mediate mucous production and bronchoconstriction. Prostaglandin D2 causes bronchoconstriction.
Q – 136 What is the reaction-taking place when H2 receptor binds to mast cells and basophils?
Ans- When H2 binds to mast cells and basophils it suppresses degranulation.
Q – 137 How many types of histamine receptors are there and what are they?
Ans- There are three types of histamine receptors. They are H1, H2 and H3.They has different tissue distributions.
Q – 138 Explain in brief about histamine?
Ans- It is formed by the decarboxylation of amino acid histidine. It accounts for 10% of granule weight. This histamine binds to specific receptors on various target cells.
Q – 139 What are secondary mediators?
Ans- Secondary mediators are produced after target cell activation or released by the break down of phospholipids membrane during the process of degarnulation. Some of the secondary mediators are leukotrienes, various cytokines, prostaglandins etc.
Q – 140 What are primary mediators?
Ans- Primary mediators are those, which are produced before degranulation. These primary mediators are stored in granules. Some of the primary mediators are histamine, heparin, proteases etc.
Q – 141 What are low affinity receptors?
Ans- Low affinity receptors play role in regulating he intensity of IgE response.
Q – 142 What are high affinity receptors?
Ans- Mast cells and basophils express high affinity receptor. The high affinity enables it to bind with IgE, despite low serum concentration of IgE.
Q – 143 What is P-K reaction?
Ans- The response produced when an allergen is injected into an individual, who is sensitive is called P-K reaction.
Q – 144 Can muscular dystrophy people take clarithromycin 500mg by IV drip if they are allergic to erythromycin – cant find muscular dystrophy people in the clinical trials? Could it destroy the dystrophin gene and increase their CPK levels?
Ans- Clarithromycin is chemically related to erythromycin and almost certainly is cross-reactive – so if you are allergic to erythromycin you will most likely be allergic to clarithromycin as well.
Q – 145 Give an example for electrophilic substitution reaction?
Ans- The species, which accepts the electrons, are called Electrophilles (or) Electrophilic reagents. When the atom (or) group of atoms present in the organic compound is replaced by another atom (or) group of atoms (electrophilic) is called electrophilic substitution reaction.
Q – 146 Tell us about some drugs that can cross the blood brain barrier?
Ans- Any drug that is designed to be given orally, i.m. s.c. or i.v. and acts on the brain MUST cross the blood-brain barrier.
E.g. Opiates, anxiolytics, SSRI’s, anti-psychotics
Drug needs to be lipid (fat) soluble to cross the BBB.
Q – 147 What would an inhalation, ingestion exposure as well as to the eyes of Butane, Diethylene glycol monobutyl ether, Monoethanolamine (MEA), & Sodium Hydroxide do to the human body?
Ans- Sodium hydroxide is a very caustic substance – severe burns on skin contact, can cause severe eye irritation and burning – can severely damage surface of eye causing blindness (permanent), severe burring on ingestion and inhalation.
Butane is a gas – it is very toxic if inhaled – acts like an anesthetic – can stop person breathing very quickly.
Diethyleneglycol monobutyl ether is less acutely toxic but does have long-term toxicity on various organs.
Q – 148 When we do liquid extraction, what is the effect of adding 10%acid or any base and how do we know which has to be added and up to which concentration or micro liter level can we add such buffers? If any gel formation occurs at the time of extraction, how will it affect the analysis? Shall we continue the extraction with the same or should we drop that method?
Ans- The idea of adding acid/base is to change the lipid (and therefore organic solvent) solubility of the components you want to extract.
For example, a fatty acid is more soluble in water as a salt (and, thus, in basic conditions) whereas it is largely insoluble in water in its uncharged state (in acid conditions). So adding acid to the solution of fatty acid salt in water will render it water-insoluble and, thus, move it from the water to the organic solvent.
This is a standard extraction technique for organic acids and bases. Also, note that exact concentrations of acid/base need to be calibrated for each extraction.
Gel formation is difficult to deal with, as you cannot be sure of the extraction (difficult to mix and separate). We would suggest changing the method unless you can show a decent extraction or the description of the method says to expect a gel formation.
Q – 149 How is the calculation derived for a drug to be bioequivalent with other? On which base the limit is fixed as 80-120% for a drug to be bioequivalent. What is meant by 90% confidential interval?
Ans- To be “bioequivalent” two preparations or drugs need to give the same biological effect.
The usual “experimental error” put on this is 20% – thus, 80-120% is considered “bioequivalent.”
90 percentage confidence interval means that statistically it is 90% certain that the results are equivalent.
Q – 150 How is the concentration of drugs in human plasma defined?
Ans- Some drugs bind extensively to plasma proteins (Warfarin binds 99%) whereas others have virtually no binding.
Extraction depends on the type of drug – there are different standard techniques for acidic, basic, and neutral drugs – and, indeed, some drugs need specific extraction techniques.
It is important for you doing bioequivalence studies to know exactly the proportion of drug extracted but such controls are again specific for each drug and use specific marker compounds.
Q – 151 Why is buprenorphine less addictive than other opioids (like fentanyl) – is it explainable by its strength of binding to the common receptor, or?
Ans- Buprenorphine is what is referred to as a partial agonist – i.e. it binds to the receptor but even at its maximum cannot give as much of an effect as a full agonist (such as morphine) – it is, thus, also a partial antagonist (partially inhibits the actions of full agonists).
As addiction is likely to be linked to strength of the effect of the drug, buprenorphine has less effect and, therefore, less addiction.
Q – 152 Is Phenoxyethanol harmful?
Ans- Phenoxyethanol is harmful and can be absorbed through the skin – official sites for toxicity data, however, show little toxicity in man and some toxicity (irritation) with high doses in animals. Phenoxyethanol is in cosmetics as a bactericide (kills bacteria).
Q – 153 What is the definition of “Biomedical”? What topics cover the Study of Biomedical Sciences?
Ans- The term “biomedical” covers a vast range of subjects – everything that relates biology to medicine. This can range from the obvious like Anatomy, Biochemistry, Physiology, Microbiology, Pharmacology, Genetics to the less obvious like Botany (most drugs were originally derived from plants and, thus, these is a big science called Phytopharmacology).
Q – 154 Do you know how the dose for children is being estimated based on preclinical data?
Ans- There are a number of ways of estimating children’s doses from preclinical (adult) data – often depends on the therapeutic index of the drug in question (the wider the therapeutic window the less accurate the child’s dose needs to be). Sometimes straight weight-basis i.e. 7kg child gets 1/10 dose of 70kg adult.
More accurate (so they say) is a dose based on body surface area (child’s surface area is greater in proportion to its body weight than an adult is). There are normograms to calculate surface area from weight and height of child.
All of these may be wrong if clearance of drug in child is significantly different from adult e.g. different metabolism or different route of clearance.
Q – 155 Which type of immunoglobulin level will increase when an individual is exposed to a parasite?
Ans- Serum IgE levels will increase and remain until the parasite is washed out from the body.
Q – 156 What are allergens?
Ans- Allergens are non-parasitic antigens. They are capable of stimulating hypersensitive reactions in allergy conditions in an individual.
Q – 157 Name some common allergens associated with type-I hypersensitivity?
Ans- Penicillin, sulfonamide, eggs, milk, dust mites, animal air, vaccines etc.
Q – 158 What is atopy?
Ans- The tendency to manifest localized anaphylactic reactions is called atopy.
Q – 159 Who are atopic individuals?
Ans- Atopic individuals are those who are having abnormal high levels of circulating IgE and more than normal number of oesinophils.
Q – 160 Where do most allergic reactions occur?
Ans- Most of them occur on mucous membrane. Allergens enter the body by the process of inhalation or ingestion.